Does it? Most of what I’ve seen amounts to assume races are have equal inherent IQ distributions, given test results are unequal the assumption is then tests mu

Does it? Most of what I’ve seen amounts to assume races are have equal inherent IQ distributions, given test results are unequal the assumption is then tests must be inherently biased (examples of recent immigrant non-English speaking Jews improving their IQ scores as they learned English) or differences are caused by socio economic factors. That logic would fall apart if the original assumption wasn’t made, but anything starting with a prior that races can have different IQ distributions is thrown out as racist. The progressive book ‘The Genetic Lottery’ kind-of makes the case for polygenic factors considered evenly distributed amongst the races as a basis for that assumption but in my view their logic has a number of holes in it. If there is a better treatment of the topic I’m genuinely interested in reading it.