The article comes of as a bit... Fluffy. But it's psychology after all, so maybe that would be expected. But I wonder. From the article: >The foreign language

The article comes of as a bit... Fluffy. But it's psychology after all, so maybe that would be expected. But I wonder. From the article: >The foreign language effect does not depend on the particular features of the language that someone speaks; instead, it is concerned with the general experience of moving from a first to a second language. It feels so weird to me. It feels so weird that according to this, (own example) a Swedish person that learned Norwegian would have similar effect as someone that learned say, Japanese. The latter just so happens to be me. (native in both) But Norwegian(bokmål) and Swedish(rikssvenska) is so similar that I can hardly believe any "learning a second language" effect occur. If it does, I think claiming that a deep-Texan learning British cockney/posh accent, or Scottish accent, also have the effect mentioned. Certain languages are just so similar that there's just major overlap. While with others, there's just expressions that is impossible to convey. But here somehow national border based categorization of languages seems to be enough to show the effect? I can't help but question if this is just one of the psychology bogus like the "decision fatigue" that had ample evidence until it was almost completely disproven.