3 ms·
While the part about the English aristocracy is somewhat glib (at the point in time when the "u" was added, arguably the aristocracy were still French, or at le
by kibwen 3y ago
While the part about the English aristocracy is somewhat glib (at the point in time when the "u" was added, arguably the aristocracy were still French, or at least Norman), but the fact that it was "color" in old French and Latin is indisputable, and that for a while both spellings were acceptable in England even as "color" become enshrined in America.
Quoting https://www.etymonline.com/word/-or https://www.etymonline.com/word/-or :
In U.S., via Noah Webster, -or is nearly universal (but not in glamour), while in Britain -our is used in most cases (but with many exceptions: author, error, tenor, senator, ancestor, horror etc.). The -our form predominated after c. 1300, but Mencken reports that the first three folios of Shakespeare's plays used both spellings indiscriminately and with equal frequency; only in the Fourth Folio of 1685 does -our become consistent.
A partial revival of -or on the Latin model took place from 16c. (governour began to lose its -u- 16c. and it was gone by 19c.), and also among phonetic spellers in both England and America (John Wesley wrote that -or was "a fashionable impropriety" in England in 1791).
[...]
Fowler notes the British drop the -u- when forming adjectives ending in -orous (humorous) and derivatives in -ation and -ize, in which cases the Latin origin is respected (such as vaporize). When the Americans began to consistently spell it one way, however, the British reflexively hardened their insistence on the other. "The American abolition of -our in such words as honour and favour has probably retarded rather than quickened English progress in the same direction." [Fowler]