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Not always of whole populations (though often that too) but individuals travelled much more freely.
by tpm 3y ago
Not always of whole populations (though often that too) but individuals travelled much more freely.
- laverya 3y agoAt least part of the reason that individuals traveled freely is that only rich individuals traveled. Paupers from London didn't get on ships to the new world - not without selling themselves into indentured servitude. When the economic barriers to migration fell to the point that subsistence farmers could travel between continents, we were always going to see either an equalization of living standards or the rise of political barriers.
- bobthepanda 3y agoYes. Even before the adoption of visas, the traveling experience for a first class passenger on a ship was very different from third class getting routed via Ellis Island in the US.
- dijit 3y agoNot in the majority of Europe, especially places like England or Poland which had strict restrictions on what serfs could do for hundreds of years. Part of the reason for Britains diverse regional dialects is due to this.
- rendaw 3y agoThat was within the country though, right? Not between countries? And this article [1] says enforcement of serfdom was localized and costly and there was de facto serf mobility. [1] https://broadstreet.blog/2021/05/07/serfdom-the-state-and-the-problem-of-enforcement/ https://broadstreet.blog/2021/05/07/serfdom-the-state-and-th...