My point is that it just seems like a pointless exception, it's not a coincidence with a separate etymology, it's not that oh actually they both trace their rou

My point is that it just seems like a pointless exception, it's not a coincidence with a separate etymology, it's not that oh actually they both trace their route way further back than Latin, it's just taken from a romance language, so 'really' the answer to the question is yes (on evidence so far). Similarly tamatar in Hindi isn't like tomato (resp. tomate, etc.) because of some Proto-Indo-European root, it's just a devanagari approximation of the Portuguese. I assume the intent in asking 'are they all romance languages' is 'do they all get it from Latin', to which the answer is certainly yes even if the language as a whole is mainly not.