4 ms·

Linguistically, I don't think d and p are close at all. But a sibling comment also links to the Wikipedia entry for this common fallacy.

• bedobi 3y ago
  what? linguists would universally consider d and p extremely similar, they're near identical plosives
  • pkd 3y ago
    Plosives are a big category. "k" is also a plosive, but does not sound anything like a <d> or <p>. d and p are plosives but are made using completely different parts of the mouth (dental vs labial). Perhaps some linguist will consider them "close" but "near identical" is almost certainly wrong, but I am happy to be proven wrong with a citation.
    • ashleney 3y ago
      Quickly glossing over index diachronica, there's no common sound change of p<->d, but p<-b->m with the medial b has instances. (sorry for the syntax, no idea how to express this)
    • caf 3y ago
      Alveolar for /d/, at least the way I say it.
    • bedobi 3y ago
      both you and the comment I'm replying to are hilariously hackernews pedantic consider all the sounds humans can produce now ask yourself 1) amongst them, if p and d are close (there is no world in which the answer to that is "no") 2) if there are real life examples of languages shifting between them or using them interchangeably (there are, papa and dada being a prime example)
      • pkd 3y ago
        Of course, I did qualify my initial comment with "linguistically", the intention was to be pedantic.