2 ms·
Shouldn't we define "fair share" as that defined by the laws that have been implemented by the politicians sufficiently bribed by the lobbyists?
by readthenotes1 3y ago
Shouldn't we define "fair share" as that defined by the laws that have been implemented by the politicians sufficiently bribed by the lobbyists?
- philipwhiuk 3y agoNo, no we shouldn't. There's a huge gulf between legal and moral.