3 ms·
No, that link has that statement as a true/false quiz question, and gives the answer as false.
by robotresearcher 3y ago
No, that link has that statement as a true/false quiz question, and gives the answer as false.
- lapcat 3y ago> No, that link has that statement as a true/false quiz question, and gives the answer as false. Oh, well, that site seems pretty sketchy anyway. It wants to force download multiple files as soon as I load it. FWIW here's Wikipedia: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topspin#Competitive_utility https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Topspin#Competitive_utility "On most court surfaces, topspin also makes the ball bounce higher. As a result, it is often used on clay or "soft" court surfaces which have a naturally higher bounce in order to make the ball harder for the opponent to hit. An opponent with a one-handed backhand is especially vulnerable to a topspin shot because it is difficult to hit a high ball with a one-handed backhand." [EDIT:] Reading that sketchy site more closely, it appears to be a trick question: > So, if you've been paying attention, you might say, "The question at the beginning of this article was a ruse?" Not exactly. In theory, it is possible to hit two balls, one with topspin and one with slice, that arrive with the same height. But in reality, that won’t happen. You have to hit a slice low over the net, otherwise it will fly long. On the other hand, you want to hit a topspin-ball high over the net; otherwise it will land short or in the net. What makes all the difference in tennis is that topspin and backspin shots go over the net at entirely different angles. You're not just hitting a flat shot with spin.