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It's related to the cherry picking fallacy. It's like saying, "everybody speaks French in parts of Europe", making it seem like that is the dominant language. W
by NL807 3y ago
It's related to the cherry picking fallacy. It's like saying, "everybody speaks French in parts of Europe", making it seem like that is the dominant language. While technically true that people speak French in Europe, the statement also completely omits a crucial detail that 92 % rest of Europe doesn't.
- quickthrower2 3y agoYes it sort of plays on “parts” as an ambiguous quantity. To the reader, they may assume parts to be “the entire north” rather than “half a culdesac”