2 ms·
The only way I see possible a $3 fee on a $1m FX change is if you send the flow to an internalizing HFT, a bit like Robinhood does. So the HFT is the one actual
by dist-epoch 3y ago
The only way I see possible a $3 fee on a $1m FX change is if you send the flow to an internalizing HFT, a bit like Robinhood does. So the HFT is the one actually subsidizing the exchange, because they want this kind of "non-toxic" flow.
Am I correct?