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This doesn't seem all that lopsided. A quick rule of thumb I have is that an 80/20 rule translates to the 50/1 rule after repeated application. For example, if
by jwarden 3y ago
This doesn't seem all that lopsided.
A quick rule of thumb I have is that an 80/20 rule translates to the 50/1 rule after repeated application. For example, if 20% of a population has 80% of the wealth, and 20% of 20% of the population has 80% of 80% of the wealth, etc, then 20%^3=0.8% of the population (approximately 1%) should have 80%^3=51.2% (approximately 50%) of the wealth.
According to the ‘Global wealth Report 2021’ from Credit Suisse, 1.1% of the adult population owns 45.8% of the wealth (pretty close to an 80/20 distribution). So distribution of beef consumption is less lopsided than wealth distribution.
- Someone 3y agoI don’t see how that’s a decent metric to compare it with. Of course it’s less lopsided. It’s not like 12% of the population drink half the milkshakes or eat half the Big Macs, either.
- throwaway09223 3y agoThey do, actually, according to this methodology. It's a broken methodology. The study asks only about the previous day's diet. Assume a population where everyone has the same diet of a milkshake randomly about once a week. If you ask the question asked by this study you will find similar results. About 12% of the people will report having a milkshake "yesterday" if everyone is uniformly consuming around one milkshake every 8.3 days.