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That's true, but in the Canadian example, presumably the government of Canada would extradite such a person to the US, while Russia obviously would not agree to
by rainsford 3y ago
That's true, but in the Canadian example, presumably the government of Canada would extradite such a person to the US, while Russia obviously would not agree to extradite the culprit here to Poland to stand trial. Whether or not the government of Russia was initially involved, there's a pretty convincing argument to be made that a government harboring an individual who attacked another country makes it a government sanctioned action in at least some sense.
Attacking infrastructure as a non-government entity can certainly be considered terrorism, but if the government backs you even after the fact, that feels a lot more like an act of war with plausible deniability. And in this case I think there might be a motivation for Poland to view it that way, since allowing Russian action against NATO countries invites more of the same, and Russia absolutely does not want to give NATO an excuse to retaliate in any way.
- brightlancer 3y ago> Whether or not the government of Russia was initially involved, there's a pretty convincing argument to be made that a government harboring an individual who attacked another country makes it a government sanctioned action in at least some sense. Countries refuse extradition for many reasons: they lack a reciprocal agreement with the other country, laws against extraditing citizens, laws against extraditing residents to face potential execution, etc. While Russia is the Nazi Germany of examples, refusing to extradite a person doesn't automatically mean anything. Of course, if someone wanted to go to war with Russia, it makes for a wonderful pretext.