In rich countries poverty is a moving target. Here in the UK the poverty rate now is about the same as it was in the 1980s, but the average purchasing power of

In rich countries poverty is a moving target. Here in the UK the poverty rate now is about the same as it was in the 1980s, but the average purchasing power of people in poverty has doubled. That's about the same as it has for average earners. This is because poverty is defined as earning 60% below the median income. Changes in the poverty statistics here are about changes in wealth distribution, not material circumstances. So not only does this make it very hard to compare poverty statistics between very different economies, it makes it very difficult to compare it historically. Ive no problem tracking inequality, and it's a legitimate way to view fairness in a society, but it's highly misleading when applied blindly to people in fundamentally different societies and economies with totally different costs of living and internal wealth distributions. Yes, I know the $30 was adjusted for purchasing power between rich and poor countries, but it's not adjusted for purchasing power over time, so it can't track actual changes in material circumstances. That's why the extreme poverty stats are more relevant for change over time.