3 ms·
No, it only assumes that for every integer there exists a single, well defined set of "the proper divisors". Afterwards, summing all of them up is a trivial ope
by PeterisP 3y ago
No, it only assumes that for every integer there exists a single, well defined set of "the proper divisors". Afterwards, summing all of them up is a trivial operation that can only possibly yield a single value.