> chain rule is defined for partial derivatives I agree. That's what I'm referring to as 'the ordinary chain rule'. > so it's still technically just chain rul

> chain rule is defined for partial derivatives I agree. That's what I'm referring to as 'the ordinary chain rule'. > so it's still technically just chain rule No. Go try to derive backprop for general DAGs using only the chain rule. If you complete the proof, then you will agree that the proof was more elaborate than you ever expected.