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It can simply be seized. Whether a conviction occurs in court is largely irrelevant, because it's in excess of the 3000 limit that this law actually puts in pl
by gunapologist99 3y ago
It can simply be seized.
Whether a conviction occurs in court is largely irrelevant, because it's in excess of the 3000 limit that this law actually puts in place, and therefore de jure illegal.
In the U.S., no conviction of the owner is even necessary, since the conviction is of the cash itself. This is likely coming to EU as well because it's a easy way for the enforcement state to increase its coffers and, in theory, stop money laundering.
- input_sh 3y ago> because it's in excess of the 3000 limit that this law actually puts in place, and therefore de jure illegal. I don't get it, do you not understand the difference between possessing a certain amount of cash and making a single payment over a certain amount in cash? How do you make a logical leap from the latter to the former?