3 ms·
“Proportion of offenders who previously offended” is not necessarily an indication of “proportion of first-time offenders who will reoffend”.
by philwelch 3y ago
“Proportion of offenders who previously offended” is not necessarily an indication of “proportion of first-time offenders who will reoffend”.
- actuallyalys 3y agoThat's a good point. Since it's looking at offenders and not offenses, I don't think they can diverge too much (but perhaps I'm not thinking of the math correctly). I did find a study looking at just first-time offenders, which found a similar level after five years: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3095888/figure/F1/ https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC3095888/figure/....