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It is because the writing rules of English were frozen in 1755 with the release of A dictionary of the English language, and that dictionary normed the spelling
by lynguist 3y ago
It is because the writing rules of English were frozen in 1755 with the release of A dictionary of the English language, and that dictionary normed the spellings which were already standardized 100 years prior to that in the mid 17th century.
And those spellings from the mid 17th century were influenced by spellings that arose with the introduction of the printing press to England in the late 15th century.
I will make the example of German to show the difference: The German normative dictionary Vollständiges Orthographisches Wörterbuch der deutschen Sprache was released in 1880 and abolished variant spellings then. It compiled the spelling that was developed since the mid 18th century.
I will make another example showcasing Turkish: its writing system was developed only in 1928.
In Turkish we have a 100 year old spelling and a 100 year old norm.
In German we have a 140 year old spelling and a ca. 200 year old norm.
In English we have a 270 year old spelling and a ca. 370 year old norm.
That’s what you see and only that. Language drifts away from the spelling over centuries.
- soco 3y agoI can't tell about other languages mentioned but German spelling does have updates way more recent than 200 years https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_orthography_reform_of_1996 https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/German_orthography_reform_of_1...