Assuming we cannot prove these parties knew the funds were stolen, wouldn’t you be punishing them for something they could not have known was illegal? We may as

Assuming we cannot prove these parties knew the funds were stolen, wouldn’t you be punishing them for something they could not have known was illegal? We may assume that individuals in these parties knew that these donations were not entirely legal (due to the splitting) but can we prove that? Sure, in the case of parties, they’d be fine, they can pay that kind of money back, but let’s assume you donate to a charity and that charity spends that money on humanitarian aid. Your stolen 100m are now a (pretty nice, big) school in some country far away. Would it be „the right thing“ to make the charity pay that money back? Is that what the law demands? I guess that would make it even harder to run such a thing, since you always have to plan for the case where you might have to pay back donations you received… how long ago? But then again, political parties and campaigns may need different treatment. And you also somehow want to recover these funds for the people originally owned that money. Rough call to make.