This article make very little sense to me, though I could be completely missing something here. Most psychotomimetic models of the dopamine receptor use D2 agon

This article make very little sense to me, though I could be completely missing something here. Most psychotomimetic models of the dopamine receptor use D2 agonists (though this is not the only receptor that can be interacted with to generate these effects, IIRC. The glutamate system is implicated as well for direct effects, I believe. You'll have to check me on that one though).. Gen 3 antipsychotics for example partially agonise the receptor to block some psychotic effects without the full blockage that pure antagonists offer. They use a non-psychotomimetic drug, amphetamines, which is warning sign number one. Warning sign number 2: IIRC, the D2 receptor is the _autoregulatory receptor_ for dopamine release, IIRC. That is, it's part of the brake system for that receptor. Of course blocking it will cause problems! What is this article even reporting on? How did this get through? Am I missing something painfully obvious here? I am not a doctor or a medical researcher (yet?), just very interested in psychopharmacotherapeutics. :'////