That's not universally true. For most marks, you are right. But for certain particularly "famous" marks, the owner has a potential cause of action for dilution

That's not universally true. For most marks, you are right. But for certain particularly "famous" marks, the owner has a potential cause of action for dilution of the owner's mark. Unlike trademark infringement, which requires a showing of likelihood of confusion (which is bolstered by a showing that the two purported mark users serve the same market), trademark dilution does not.