3 ms·

>the key ement that establishes criminal infringement is "intent to profit" Is this also true in the US, or only in the UK ?

• tptacek 15y ago
  Both.
  • Natsu 15y ago
    The US, thanks to the NET Act, has an all-encompassing definition of "profit" though. But if he was making all that money, it's not really a stretch to establish it in either jurisdiction. All the more reason that the UK should have been the one to prosecute.