4 ms·
short answer, it does, the molecules still have inertia, the rotational part of the shaking (assuming it's not a perfectly directional shake) will cause some pa
by dusted 3y ago
short answer, it does, the molecules still have inertia, the rotational part of the shaking (assuming it's not a perfectly directional shake) will cause some parts of the liquid to have a higher velocity than others, this in effect means they have more movement energy, so they push others with less energy out of the way (while of course equalizing energy along the way), this causes the liquid mass to have vortexes and mix.
If you shaked perfectly along one axis, they'd probably only move a bit, and not really mix, depending on how compression able and uniform the liquid is.
A paint mixer for instance mostly relies on rotational inertia https://www.youtube.com/shorts/bSUbEzxGjAM https://www.youtube.com/shorts/bSUbEzxGjAM
- ainiriand 3y agoWell considering a perfect directional movement if the liquid is not comprimible then it should not move at all, right?
- ithkuil 3y agoThat would also require the molecules to be arranged in regular crystal with an axis parallel to the direction of shaking and also maintain that arrangement which for a liquid would require the molecules to be perfectly still (absolute zero) since a material with vibrating molecules that stay in a crystalline arrangement would be otherwise called a solid.
- downboots 3y agoLiquid not compressible does not mean at the molecular level. The model is one of 'springy balls'. Even in a solid rod if you hit one end, the wave propagates on the other side. A drop of food dye on a closed container with water would nevertheless diffuse or flow.
- sdflhasjd 3y agoIf I was to take a hypothetical, perfectly spherical, frictionless container full of a liquid, would this have any similar effects?
- dusted 3y agoI don't believe it would