3 ms·
Why make it about the rich. Your statistic doesn't magically change if you change the starting $1 to something else. And to put the phenomena in much simpler w
by Etherlord87 3y ago
Why make it about the rich. Your statistic doesn't magically change if you change the starting $1 to something else.
And to put the phenomena in much simpler words: flipping a coin once is good, having $100 bucks you either lose $40 or get $60, on average you get $10, and you win half of the time. The problem is if you have to flip a coin at least twice, because then the accumulated multiplier of your value, rather than .6 / 1.5 becomes:
.6 / .9 / .9 / 2.25
So while on average you gain 16.25% of value, you are a winner only ¼ of the time, and it gets better/worse depending on average gain / chance to gain.
…And apparently, what I learned just now, since your chance to gain approaches 0, for a finite population and infinite time, the chance approaches 0, therefore rendering the average gain to also be 0.