> why were so many people able to function prior to psychotherapy Can you explain why society being able to function prior to psychotherapy contributes at all

> why were so many people able to function prior to psychotherapy Can you explain why society being able to function prior to psychotherapy contributes at all to considerations about its efficacy and validity to science, or is in any way relevant to discussions about modern science? Walk me through your thought process here, because I'm similarly confused as to why we need all these antibiotics, for humanity survived just fine before they were invented in 1940. Especially considering: 1) There are many documented cases of mental disorder throughout history that were either poorly-understood mislabeled. 2) Most psychiatric disorders don't have a completely-debilitating effect on those afflicted. 3) The existence of people being able to function does not say anything about the number of people who died/removed themselves from society due to being unable to interact. History is an interesting lens presented only by the people who succeeded enough to produce it.