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> I think the customer has just changed. Consumers don't have money anymore. Businesses do. Maybe said a different way, for the highest margin products you are

by em500 3y ago

> I think the customer has just changed. Consumers don't have money anymore. Businesses do. Maybe said a different way, for the highest margin products you are targeting businesses. That's seems like a fact-free assertion. Both (inflation adjusted) disposable income and actual consumption spending for US households have grown at a steady rate since WWII. The only substantial deviation from trend (upwards for income, downward for consumption) were 2 yeas of COVID. https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/DSPIC96 https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/DSPIC96 https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/PCEC96 https://fred.stlouisfed.org/series/PCEC96

uoaei 3y ago
Cumulative measures such as these are extremely misleading. Per capita measures only slightly less so. Without looking into the distribution over the population there is no real connection between your comment and the parent's.
- edgyquant 3y ago
  You or the parent are more than welcome to post data proving the opposite is true. Instead both of you are just stating things with nothing but vibes to back it up.
  - uoaei 3y ago
    You'll note of course that I'm not arguing the opposite conclusion. Don't try to force that on me. I'm just saying it seems really uncritical to assume that cumulative data says anything about median purchasing power.
  - rhelz 3y ago
    Up until about 1973, when worker productivity rose, the wages rose in lockstep. Since then, worker productivity is up about 2.4x but wages have remained stagnant. https://www.epi.org/publication/charting-wage-stagnation/ https://www.epi.org/publication/charting-wage-stagnation/
    - pas 3y ago
      FYI that graph is very misleading (using different deflators for the productivity and for the hourly comp, also it's missing benefits and other parts of total compensation that are all paid by productivity increases) https://www.reddit.com/r/badeconomics/comments/6rtoh4/productivity_pay_gap_in_epi_we_trust/ https://www.reddit.com/r/badeconomics/comments/6rtoh4/produc...

by em500 3y ago

uoaei 3y ago

Cumulative measures such as these are extremely misleading. Per capita measures only slightly less so. Without looking into the distribution over the population there is no real connection between your comment and the parent's.

edgyquant 3y ago
You or the parent are more than welcome to post data proving the opposite is true. Instead both of you are just stating things with nothing but vibes to back it up.
- uoaei 3y ago
  You'll note of course that I'm not arguing the opposite conclusion. Don't try to force that on me. I'm just saying it seems really uncritical to assume that cumulative data says anything about median purchasing power.
- rhelz 3y ago
  Up until about 1973, when worker productivity rose, the wages rose in lockstep. Since then, worker productivity is up about 2.4x but wages have remained stagnant. https://www.epi.org/publication/charting-wage-stagnation/ https://www.epi.org/publication/charting-wage-stagnation/
  - pas 3y ago
    FYI that graph is very misleading (using different deflators for the productivity and for the hourly comp, also it's missing benefits and other parts of total compensation that are all paid by productivity increases) https://www.reddit.com/r/badeconomics/comments/6rtoh4/productivity_pay_gap_in_epi_we_trust/ https://www.reddit.com/r/badeconomics/comments/6rtoh4/produc...