3 ms·
I always assumed any momentum effectiveness was arbitrage on trader volume scales differing by order of magnitude. E.g. a major player rebalancing a position c
by ethbr0 3y ago
I always assumed any momentum effectiveness was arbitrage on trader volume scales differing by order of magnitude.
E.g. a major player rebalancing a position created distortions that allowed much smaller players to profit, but no distortion on the scale that would allow others trading at major volume to profit
- throw0101c 3y ago> I always assumed any momentum effectiveness was arbitrage on trader volume scales differing by order of magnitude. It's an area of active research: > Students of financial economics have largely attributed the appearance of momentum to cognitive biases, which belong in the realm of behavioral economics. The explanation is that investors are irrational,[4][5] in that they underreact to new information by failing to incorporate news in their transaction prices. However, much as in the case of price bubbles, other research has argued that momentum can be observed even with perfectly rational traders.[6] * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Momentum_(finance) https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Momentum_(finance) * https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carhart_four-factor_model https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Carhart_four-factor_model Though the market, size, and value factors appear to explain >90% of returns (at least using US data): * https://www.ifa.com/articles/momentum_fourth_factor https://www.ifa.com/articles/momentum_fourth_factor