> Math is known to be universal Is this really the case? Or what do you mean by this exactly? Gödel’s incompleteness does apply to it as well, and we can for e

> Math is known to be universal Is this really the case? Or what do you mean by this exactly? Gödel’s incompleteness does apply to it as well, and we can for example only determine the Busy Beaver number up to a fix point no matter what. Though it probably doesn’t matter from a practical perspective, I would just like to know in what sense do you mean universality.