I wonder if general education had a factor in hiding some cases in the past. For example, is there much visible difference between an under-socialized / under-

I wonder if general education had a factor in hiding some cases in the past. For example, is there much visible difference between an under-socialized / under-educated yet neurotypical person vs someone who is neurdivergent with that same education level and social/work life? And do the differences show up more when early general education is available? (Hopefully I phrased that question correctly).