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I don’t think so, because you could divide any uncomputable number by an arbitrary computable constant and it would still be uncomputable. I think!
by justicz 3y ago
I don’t think so, because you could divide any uncomputable number by an arbitrary computable constant and it would still be uncomputable. I think!
- l0b0 3y agoYeah, I updated the comment based on that. I guess you'd have to formulate it very specifically to get an interesting answer.