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No, that doesn’t follow at all. The argument is that either the training or the expression violated existing cooyrights through the making of unlicensed copies.
by jprete 3y ago
No, that doesn’t follow at all. The argument is that either the training or the expression violated existing cooyrights through the making of unlicensed copies. It’s not based on open source licensing. Although OSS viral licensing may well apply if fair use is not a successful defense.
- tedunangst 3y agoWhat copyright is violated by training on public domain data?
- numpad0 3y agoDMCA works for free data too. It doesn’t matter if your gains are in the form of fiat or crypto or social currency.
- jprete 3y agoIf it's public domain, then no copyright is violated. I'm not talking about public-domain data; the G-G-GP specifically mentioned the possible legal interpretation that training on large amounts of publicly visible (but not public domain) data is itself a copyright violation.
- zitterbewegung 3y agoSo it doesn't follow the logic that the output of a computer program can be copyrighted if the input can ? It must not be a transformative work?