> Why would any country in a remotely adversarial relationship with America disclose their foreign reserves, especially in USD and EURO after what they did to R

> Why would any country in a remotely adversarial relationship with America disclose their foreign reserves, especially in USD and EURO after what they did to Russia’s reserves? For one: failing to disclose foreign reserves makes a relationship more adversarial, not less adversarial. For another: why are we assuming that China's foreign reserves are in banks that the US controls, or can otherwise curtail access to? The situation with Russia is instructive: CBR claimed to have around 50% of its reserves in US or EU institutions, but only a tiny fraction of that has actually been found[1]. It's much more likely that China, like Russia, is keeping the majority of its reserves in home (or friendly nation) banks. [1]: https://www.intellinews.com/the-eu-can-t-find-most-of-russia-s-300bn-of-frozen-reserves-271253 https://www.intellinews.com/the-eu-can-t-find-most-of-russia...