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> In any case, it may be easy to see what is meant by "amygdalas" but it is not right. "Amygdalae" is the right form of the word, whether you want to take it fr
by zajio1am 3y ago
> In any case, it may be easy to see what is meant by "amygdalas" but it is not right. "Amygdalae" is the right form of the word, whether you want to take it from Latin, Greek, or, indeed, English.
If you take a foreign word from (say) Latin and use it in English, you also do not use Latin declension forms of it, so why use Latin plural form of it? I think it makes more sense to form plural using English grammar rules.
- YeGoblynQueenne 3y agoI think the point is that those are not loans into English, rather they are international scientific terms in terminology that is used by many people whose first language is neither English, nor Latin (or Greek). So there is no reason to have a convention that is specific to English, or any other language, besides the Greek or Latin of the original. In essence, when you use a word like "amygdala", you are not using English. Rather, you are code-switching between Latin and English.