4 ms·
The is/ought distinction is merely linguistic. It's true: you can't derive an ought statement from an is statement. Consider your statement "I ought to like c
by alphazard 3y ago
The is/ought distinction is merely linguistic. It's true: you can't derive an ought statement from an is statement.
Consider your statement "I ought to like chocolate ice cream". That is an ambiguous claim, which I can try to interpret in one of two possible ways:
1. "I value that I like chocolate ice cream". If you were a rational agent, this would be an infinite regression, of course you like that your utility function is your utility function, and that liking goes on forever. It's interesting that humans, which are not rational, can also have thoughts about not liking that they enjoy certain things.
2. "It is good that I like chocolate ice cream". Good for who/what? there needs to be something that values that you like chocolate ice cream. "My friend values that I like ice cream" is not ambiguous, and firmly in factual territory again. Your friend is the valuer/agent with preferences. People hate the ambiguity and want to say the valuer is the universe or God or something else. But it's just an under-specified statement about whether one agent likes another agents preferences.
Your statement about "we ought to ___", cannot be well defined in all cases, because something could be good for one agent in the group, but bad for another. Any attempt to make a claim "good for the group" is no longer a statement about individual agents and their preferences. It's about something else, if it's coherent at all. Rarely does "good for the group" mean "good for all individuals in the group respectively", which is well defined.