4 ms·
Because {2..n} contains some prime p, in the range n/2 < p < n, which appears exactly once in the factorization of n!. (Is that the argument?)
by perihelions 3y ago
Because {2..n} contains some prime p, in the range n/2 < p < n, which appears exactly once in the factorization of n!. (Is that the argument?)
- ykonstant 3y agoCorrect.