Isn't it already criminal to knowingly and with intent make claims in absence of evidence? If you don't present evidence, and you know that you do not have evi

Isn't it already criminal to knowingly and with intent make claims in absence of evidence? If you don't present evidence, and you know that you do not have evidence, and it can be shown that you knew you did not have evidence when you, then that's intent to defame (or obstruct). And also such a pattern of defamation with intent and intimidation may qualify as an OC protection racket? (Plaintiff could not have had knowledge of which content defendant was authorized to archive or fair use, and plaintiff knew that they hadn't such information when they harassed and intimidated defendant and so plaintiff had criminal intent.)