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> The IP can only be turned into personal information via cooperation of the users internet provider. It’s not a direct identifier but with geo-ip or other dat
by prepend 3y ago
> The IP can only be turned into personal information via cooperation of the users internet provider.
It’s not a direct identifier but with geo-ip or other data, it can identify an individual (eg, have 100 possibilities and geoip narrows it down to only 1 in that region based on IP).
The PII aspect isn’t based on getting a link from the provider. The PII aspect is based on the IP itself standing out in data and allowing reidentification. It’s not 100% accurate, but accurate enough to make money off advertising.
- smeagull 3y agoThey're not stable in time either. And they can be misleading if you try to use them to geolocate a user. The ARIN for my IPs makes me appear 500km away.
- tremon 3y agoIt’s not a direct identifier Except when it is. I have a semi-permanent home IP (it only changes when the MAC address on my router changes and I get assigned a new lease) and only one user in my home. My IP address pretty uniquely identifies me.
- tredre3 3y agoMost cable modem users in north america are in the same situation. And small shops usually have a business package with a static IP too. I don't understand the point keyboard warriors who insist IP doesn't identify a person and IP isn't PII are trying to make. Are they just being pedantic? Because yes, often an IP is shared. Yes, obviously the legal system shouldn't assume a IP equals a person. That would be very problematic. But when it comes to mere tracking, an IP can absolutely identify directly a person. So why not just treat it as such all the time? What's the downside of considering IP to be PII?