The copy and pasted definition supports my argument exactly. > Romans 2000 years ago socialist (Roman state build roads)? No because Roman roads were built fo

The copy and pasted definition supports my argument exactly. > Romans 2000 years ago socialist (Roman state build roads)? No because Roman roads were built for military purposes and with military funds. > Were middle age European kings (they were the state) socialist for building roads? No, because there was no government that represented the people. All the land was owned by the royals and aristocracy. The roads today are owned by the state, which represents the citizens of the country, not an individual, family or military. The roads are funded by direct allocation of the taxes of citizens and not from any single individual’s bank account or military war spoils.