Is there a point to this post, if not to stoke outrage? If so, this only makes explicit through elected officials what other countries (including the US) have

Is there a point to this post, if not to stoke outrage? If so, this only makes explicit through elected officials what other countries (including the US) have made implicit through unelected judges (eg: 'fighting words' are not protected speech, even though the 1st amendment makes no such carve-out).