Logically (as if that had anything to do with it) if a mechanical notification from the first party is taken as securing de-facto consent from the second party

Logically (as if that had anything to do with it) if a mechanical notification from the first party is taken as securing de-facto consent from the second party to record any conversation that follows, and the first party is in a jurisdiction requiring two-party consent, the second party should be allowed to deduce that the first party has itself given consent for the conversation to be recorded.