4 ms·
Because obviously the amount of surface water is completely independent of the amount of subsurface water in aquifers. /s
by wittenbunk 3y ago
Because obviously the amount of surface water is completely independent of the amount of subsurface water in aquifers. /s
- explaininjs 3y agoWhat do you think the “obvious” correlation coefficient is between the two? Or even its sign? I suppose it’d be far too much to ask for the R value too. Science is supposed to answer these questions, instead this article carefully withholds information to make molehills into mountains.