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If y = f(x, T) when y is a member of T, prove f() doesn’t copy a value from T. This is possible. For example, many functions f(0) return 0; if we can derive a
by wokwokwok 3y ago
If y = f(x, T) when y is a member of T, prove f() doesn’t copy a value from T.
This is possible. For example, many functions f(0) return 0; if we can derive a function g(x) that generates y without access to T (ie. the training data) then we can plausibly assume that f(x, T) might indeed not be copying from T.
…but can we do so?
If so, we must admit that it is possible that f(x, T) = g(x) and no copying is taking place.
So, in the past 50 years of prior work can we come up with an example of a function g(x) that generates the exact code we see coming out of these LLMs?
I’ll grant, it’s not impossible.
For example, if stable diffusion generated sin wave patterns or fractals that exhibited “deep complex structure” and it happens that some artist had written code to do that exact thing, there would (I believe) be a fair case that stable diffusion was not copying the artist, it was simply a parallel implementation of the same generative code.
However, now my scepticism kicks in.
For code written by hand, that was not generated, we are suggesting that a LLM is a parallel equivalent implementation of a human mind, and it can, with purely “learnt patterns” replicate not only the intent and structure of known code, but the exact code itself, repeatedly.
I’ll grant. It’s not impossible, and it’s very difficult to prove, but it seems fabulously, unbelievably, extraordinarily unlikely that a clean room reimplementation would be identical, repeatedly.
We’re entering into the domain of assigning probability and then doing a zero knowledge proof here, but the solution is easy.
Just prove by counter example.
Train a model that generates such code without the code as training data.
You have now won the argument.
…on the bright side, you’ve also solved the 10 million dollar question of “how do I train my LLM when I don’t have enough training data” (because that’s what you just did; train it to do something without training data), so you’re now rich and give zero ducks what I think. Congrats.
- skinnymuch 3y agoCould you explain this: > For example, if stable diffusion generated sin wave patterns or fractals that exhibited “deep complex structure” and it happens that some artist had written code to do that exact thing, there would (I believe) be a fair case that stable diffusion was not copying the artist, it was simply a parallel implementation of the same generative code. I understand your pseudo equations and I understand [some] engineering. Why are artists writing code? Is that to show the parallel of if artists did write code? Unless artists do really write code but that’s beyond the scope of what I’m asking.
- tsimionescu 3y agoThe point was that some artist may have created a work representing a complex fractal, perhaps through code since it can be quite difficult to manually compute some fractal patterns. And that in that case, g(x) that can produce a perfect copy of the artist's work without having the image in the training set provably exists, and is the actual mathematical fractal function itself.