3 ms·
Your argument is not persuasive. The reason why is neatly explained in the video I linked. > it’s “the same progression” regardless of what the fourth chord is
by Maursault 3y ago
Your argument is not persuasive. The reason why is neatly explained in the video I linked.
> it’s “the same progression” regardless of what the fourth chord is. This is certainly not the case.
Yes, yes it is. Watch the video. Absorb it. These are not two distinct progressions, they are the same. What you are arguing is that a variant of one progression is not the same progression, and you are mistaken.
- tshaddox 3y agoThe video is discussing very elementary music theory. I understand it. You’re misunderstanding it. It doesn’t say what you think it says. I am arguing that the Axis progression is not a variation of the Canon in D progression, or vice versa. They are two separate progressions that share very little in common except the first 3 chords and a large influence in pop music. The video you posted does not say otherwise.
- Maursault 3y ago> I am arguing that the Axis progression is not a variation of the Canon in D progression But it most certainly is. They chords Axis are using are E – B - C#m – A, or I-V-vi-IV Pachelbel's Canon transposed to E Major uses the same chords except for the last, which would be E - B - C#m - G#m, or I-V-vi-iii Changing one root from a minor third to a perfect fourth does not a new progression make. Changing one chord in a progression by one half step in the same key does not make it "a rather different chord progression." One is a variation of the other and derivative, and the single variation is in the same key, changed by a half step and minor to major. And Axis is doing the same thing. They're changing the minor third to a perfect fourth in many of the songs they're demonstrating. But how could they do that if it would make it a fundamentally different progression? Because it wouldn't.