Aren't there some relevant details missing from this kind of analysis? Banks failing just means that the value of the banks assets fall below the value of their

Aren't there some relevant details missing from this kind of analysis? Banks failing just means that the value of the banks assets fall below the value of their deposits, right? In which case the degree to which that happens seems to be highly relevant to this kind of comparison. E.g. the value of assets falling to 50% of deposits in bank failures in financial crisis A vs 90% in financial crisis B