The article is about a phenomenon observed in a narrow demographic of Americans, and explicitly calls out that "US Black non-Hispanics and US Hispanics, as well

The article is about a phenomenon observed in a narrow demographic of Americans, and explicitly calls out that "US Black non-Hispanics and US Hispanics, as well as all subgroups of populations in other rich countries (such as countries from the EU, Japan, Australia and others), show the exact opposite trend." How do you go from that to thinking it must be the Internet causing it?