3 ms·

Well, one way is the line item veto: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Line-item_veto_in_the_United_States https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Line-item_veto_in_the_Unite

Well, one way is the line item veto: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Line-item_veto_in_the_United_States https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Line-item_veto_in_the_United_S.... In this case, I believe subtle changes were made to this bill just before the NYS legislature was going to be on recess and it passed and signed into law.

newswasboring 3y ago
But the bill had a supermajority, how can the governor veto it at all? Is there no way for the legislature to force the governor to sign the bill? What if 100% of the legislature voted yes on something, can the governor still block it?
- Karunamon 3y ago
  Because the ability to veto is a separate step in the workflow, not a precondition of how the vote to pass breaks down. If the hypothetical 100% of the legislature voted yes, the governor could still say no, and then it is upon the legislature to formally override with another vote.
  - MichaelZuo 3y ago
    That would explain why the bill not-yet-amended to the governor's preferences could not become law without another vote. But it doesn't explain how the amended-to-the-governor's-preferences version became law.
  - newswasboring 3y ago
    So the legislature amended it, not the governor. Why is the governor getting the blame then? The governor could say whatever they want, the legislature could have just sent it back as is with the override of the veto. It is mind boggling that the legislature changed anything in a bill with a super majority.
    - dawidpotocki 3y ago
      iirc The governor can request changes on which the legislature will then vote on, which is what happened.
- MichaelZuo 3y ago
  Yeah this aspect of the story never made sense to me. Wouldn't the legislature have had to vote on the 'subtly changed' bill again for it to become law? If they don't need to, yet it still somehow can become law in amended form, isn't it bypassing the powers of the legislature?

newswasboring 3y ago

But the bill had a supermajority, how can the governor veto it at all? Is there no way for the legislature to force the governor to sign the bill? What if 100% of the legislature voted yes on something, can the governor still block it?

Karunamon 3y ago
Because the ability to veto is a separate step in the workflow, not a precondition of how the vote to pass breaks down. If the hypothetical 100% of the legislature voted yes, the governor could still say no, and then it is upon the legislature to formally override with another vote.
- MichaelZuo 3y ago
  That would explain why the bill not-yet-amended to the governor's preferences could not become law without another vote. But it doesn't explain how the amended-to-the-governor's-preferences version became law.
- newswasboring 3y ago
  So the legislature amended it, not the governor. Why is the governor getting the blame then? The governor could say whatever they want, the legislature could have just sent it back as is with the override of the veto. It is mind boggling that the legislature changed anything in a bill with a super majority.
  - dawidpotocki 3y ago
    iirc The governor can request changes on which the legislature will then vote on, which is what happened.
MichaelZuo 3y ago
Yeah this aspect of the story never made sense to me. Wouldn't the legislature have had to vote on the 'subtly changed' bill again for it to become law? If they don't need to, yet it still somehow can become law in amended form, isn't it bypassing the powers of the legislature?