4 ms·

Considering that more than 50% of the general public are Christian, be overrepresented by a factor of two is a mathematical impossibility currently.

• boringuser2 4y ago
  Yes, the much higher Christian population means it is inherently less egregious if your goal is to be outraged by proportion. Do you get it?
  • tasty_freeze 4y ago
    I'm among the 26.8% (according to the article) of unaffiliated/non-believers. But I have only 3.7% representation. Christians are 65.4% of the general population but 90% of congress. Do you get it?
    • boringuser2 4y ago
      You have representation. Most of those congress critters are just lying about their affiliation anyhow. The US isn't even close to the laws imposed by any even vaguely religious country like Iran or even Isr*l.
      • tasty_freeze 4y ago
        They might be lying about their true beliefs, but to uphold the ruse that they are Christian, will tend to vote in a way that preserves the ruse, and thus won't represent me as much as they otherwise would. Second, please don't be pedantic about whether I have representation at all, unless you prefer everyone to fully qualify every statement to prevent pedantic responses. I thought it was pretty clear that I meant my in-group is underrepresented, and not that I literally don't have any representation in congress, nor that such representatives don't often vote in ways that align with my own interests.