3 ms·
The discussion on security.SE seems to imply it's unknown: https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/107081/does-every-hash-value-have-an-inverse-value/10710
by mdaniel 4y ago
The discussion on security.SE seems to imply it's unknown: https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/107081/does-every-hash-value-have-an-inverse-value/107100#107100 https://security.stackexchange.com/questions/107081/does-eve... so if you have a proof of your simple answer, I'm sure they'd welcome it
- hnfong 4y agoThe linked answer on SE basically says statistically there's a near-100% chance that there's a string where md5(string) is 0xfffffff... but there's no concrete proof. Which is basically the same thing the GP says.
- klyrs 4y agoMy statement is one of statistically-informed confidence. A physicist's proof, not a mathematician's. As I said, proving it is where the challenge lies.