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Why do linguists consider French and Norman to be mutually intelligible?
by 908B64B197 4y ago
Why do linguists consider French and Norman to be mutually intelligible?
- thaumasiotes 4y agoDo they? I don't think there are good records of 11th-century Norman French. But Geoffrey Chaucer wrote in 14th-century English and he is not intelligible to a modern English speaker. (More accurately, he is intelligible in large part! But if you try reading one page of his work, you'll notice some serious problems. http://www.sd-editions.com/CantApp/GP/ http://www.sd-editions.com/CantApp/GP/ will even read it to you in reconstructed pronunciation.)