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>You're arguing that oil & gas companies should have standing to sue over a specific mass transit policy Yes, this is trivially true. Let's say there's a mass
by yanderekko 3y ago
>You're arguing that oil & gas companies should have standing to sue over a specific mass transit policy
Yes, this is trivially true. Let's say there's a mass transit policy that said that ethanol fuel would be subsidized for the next 12 months, to help out local producers. Then after the 12 months the government just simply continues to provide those subsidies. Surely someone has standing to sue here, right? Why not oil companies? etc.
If that's more of an "energy policy" and less of a "mass transit" policy, then fine you can replace ethanol subsidies with high speed rail subsidies or something, though I think that gives you a less-tight analogy with the student loan subsidization scenario where you're illegally subsidizing a direct substitute for a company's product.
The implicit logic that I've seen every now and then is "if the government is doing something nice for someone, then no one has standing to sue to stop it." To me that's the more obviously absurd position. If the government illegally subsidizes student loans, who has standing if not the companies that are trying to provide competing student loans? If the government illegally subsidizes ethanol, who has standing if not oil companies?
- gaganyaan 3y agoI truly don't understand why you think in the example you give why a company would have standing to sue. I don't think any further conversation will be productive. From my point of view, you're using motivated reasoning to do your best to defend an obviously indefensible view.
- yanderekko 3y agoAnd what's my alleged motivation? A love for oil companies? Hah. Accusations of motivated reasoning can be easily lobbed back, and I suspect that all my critics in this thread have similar ideological motivations, hence explaining the correlated errors. Standing requires injury, causation, and redressability. Which do you dispute the existence of in these scenarios? Again, I'm not saying that oil companies should actually be able to stop mass transportation policies. But to claim that a mass transportation policy cannot causally injure an oil company? Wild. Why are people using this as an example if they can't imagine how an oil company might take some sort of interest in stopping a mass transportation policy?